Background:
I've had an app in the iOS app store for many years. Quite recently I published a Mac version of the app. The Mac version uses the same bundle id and the app is setup in App Store Connect to be the same app. It's my understanding that with this setup, if a user purchases the iOS version, they don't need to pay for the macOS version (or vice versa).
The iOS app started out as a paid app and was later transitioned to a free app with in-app purchases. The new macOS version also supports the same IAPs.
If it makes a difference, the macOS version is built from the iOS code base using Mac Catalyst.
The app uses old StoreKit1 on-device receipt validation.
Issue:
I have a longtime user of the iOS app that has recently installed the macOS version. Their attempt to restore purchases in the macOS version is not resulting in anything being restored. The user originally purchased the old iOS version before it had any in-app purchases.
I log diagnostic info in the app and the user sent me those logs. One of the things I show in the log is information from the receipt. The on-device receipt validation my app does is indicating it is a valid receipt.
The problem is that the receipt states the original version of the app corresponds to the new macOS build. i would expect the receipt to show the version originally purchased years ago on iOS.
Question:
What is supposed to happen in a case like this? When the macOS version of the app requests (and gets) an updated receipt, is the receipt supposed to show the original version as the first macOS version of the app or is it supposed to show the first downloaded version, regardless of OS?
What is the correct logic for restoring purchases if the macOS receipt has no indication of the user ever having used the iOS version for years?
